Please try again. Facebook Twitter. Remember Me Lost Password Register. Disregarding all, recently one of my teachers told me that depending on the usage both are correct. Won't that be breaking the rule or is there some sort leniency for this case? Can anyone explain?
There are two questions here. As a matter of courtesy it is usually held that one should refer to another person before oneself, thus either 'XYZ and I' or 'XYZ and me. Orson Burleigh wrote: There are two questions here. One is a subject pronoun 'I' and the other an object pronoun 'me'. As far as using proper grammar, what's wrong with that?
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If everyone comes up with their own way of using words and grammar, we will revert to the biblical Tower of Babel. Speaking and writing correctly, and I'm not saying that idioms and local usage in context should be shunned, leads to better communication and less ambiguity. There's beauty in every language. Thanks a bunch all!
Orson Burleigh , can't believe that is was as easy as that!! Crawdaddy wrote: Every single occurance of "Me and Joe I think 'me and Joe' is acceptable where both of the following apply: a they are in the objective case; and b 'Joe' is followed by a relative clause, or appositional phrase, referring to him.
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For example: It was a fascinating experience for me and Joe, who was visiting the country for the first time. They came over and spoke to me and Joe, my trusty friend and colleague. Note that in the second example above, putting Joe first would cause ambiguity as to whether two or three people are meant. I disagree that "Joe and I" or similar is only appropriate in formal settings.
I am an ordinary person, as are my colleagues and friends, and we all say it quite naturally in everyday life. Where would it sound "affected"? Yes, to avoid confusion, learners should be made aware that a lot of English they hear spoken by native English speakers will not be 'correct'. I think, however, that those natives speak as they like and why shouldn't they? They themselves might consider it perfectly acceptable, but to others it can sound uneducated. Briton wrote: I disagree that "Joe and I" or similar is only appropriate in formal settings.
Again, the two different 'errors' show up. Crawdaddy is right, as far as I know - it is never acceptable to use ' me and Joe ' or 'Joe and me' as the subject of a verb.
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However, you may hear it occasionally. It is acceptable to some people local dialectical variations to use 'me and Joe' as the object of the verb. As Audiendus says, occasionally it is actually more understandable this way. Ground base for my style is defined from the time of photo journalism, which means I am omnipresent yet unobtrusive, ghost like, keeping my emotions out of the way, yet aware not to miss an important moment, just like mosaic piece that might seem small; yet essential.
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